On 18/11/18 at 13:36, Rowland Penny wrote:
> On Sun, 18 Nov 2018 13:24:51 +0100
> Alessandro Selli <alessandroselli@???> wrote:
>
>> On 18/11/18 at 10:46, Martin Steigerwald wrote:
>>
>>> The most important aspect here is: "has been". Its in the past
>>> already and it does not determine the future.
>>   Maybe not.  If my English Grammar is still worth the schoolbook
>> paper it was printed on, "has been" is the Present Continuous Tense,
>> that is used "to express the idea that something is happening now, at
>> this very moment. It can also be used to show that something is not
>> happening now."
>>
>>   So, the main use is for "something is happening now", sometimes for
>> "something [that] is not happening now."
>>
> Nope, your schoolbook paper wasn't worth the paper it was written on ;-)


  All right, I checked it and indeed I remembered wrong.  The Present
Continuous Tense if formed by the Present Tense of "be" followed by a
Present Participle.  In this case we have the Present Tense of "have"
("has") followed by the Present Participle of "be" ("been").  Which
means that KatolaZ used the Present Perfect tense, which is used to
express "an action happened at an unspecified time before now."


  So you and Rowland are right, and I hope the sneering against
Devuaners really is something of the past.

Tense.  😉


> 'has been' denotes something that has happened e.g 'That guy is an has
> been' or 'the book has been found'.
>
> Your 'schoolbook' is probably where the misuse of 'since' comes from
> as well.


  Oh well, it is indeed a very old one.  But I'm reluctant to dump it
into the waste paper bin.  I too am a traditionalist, lazy grandpa who
resists any change whatever, who just dreams to be a kid again.



  Greetings,



--
Alessandro Selli <alessandroselli@???>
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